Hello,

I have some difficulties with the following sample question from Rita's actual PM FASTrack test suite:

Question:

What would be the best explanation for the following: both the cost variance and schedule variance are negative, but the cost variance is lower than the schedule variance.

Correct answer according to Rita:

The project underspent because all work was not completed, but overspent for work that was done.

Let's assume the following (as an example):

SV = -1000

CV = -900 (as according to the question the cost variance is lower than the schedule variance).

For me this would mean that the project is overspent in any way...

Can somebody explain Rita's answer to this question?

Thank you very much and kind Regards,

ARO